What Did the Apostle Paul Mean By,

Let your women keep silence in the churches”?

"But the Lord is in His holy temple: let all the earth keep silence before him." Habakkuk 2:20

 

By Marshall “Rusty” Entrekin

 

Imagine that the 1930’s comedy team of Laurel and Hardy were invited to share inspirational messages at a church. In a departure from their regular routine, they decided to take turns addressing the congregation. While Oliver Hardy had the congregation in stitches, Stan Laurel was loudly carrying on a conversation with the person sitting next to him. “Stanley, please be quiet!” Oliver said. “You’re not supposed to be talking in church! You ought to be obeying the rules! Shame on you!”

 

At that, Stanley quit talking and sheepishly sank down into his seat. Finally, Oliver finished his message. “OK, Stanley, now it’s your turn!” He said.  Stan, however, remained seated.

 

“Stanley, it’s your turn!”

 

“Stanley?”

 

Stan scribbled a note and handed it to the usher. Oliver read out loud: “But Ollie, you said that I’m not supposed to be talking in church!”

 

Obviously, in this imaginary story, Oliver meant that Stan was not supposed to talk in a disruptive way in church. Stan, however, took Oliver’s words to mean that he should not speak at all. That was because he failed to recognize what most of us, as native speakers of English, are able to easily see. A foreigner, however, or even an English speaker a few hundred years from now, might easily miss such indicators of meaning.

 

All of us are “foreigners” to Koine Greek, the language that the New Testament was written in nearly 2000 years ago. Occasionally, where difficult passages are concerned, it is only through careful study and reflection, combined with receptiveness to the guidance of the Holy Spirit, that we come to properly understand the meaning of a biblical writer. Sometimes, upon further study, even expert translators realize that they had initially missed indicators of meaning in a difficult passage.

 

For some time now, persuaded by a good friend who has written on this subject, I have held to the position that women should not speak publicly in church. This position is based on I Corinthians 14: 34-37:

 

 

34     Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.

35     And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.

36     What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?

37     If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.

 

In most modern churches, not only the women, but also most of the men have to be silent, so this passage does not attract as much controversy as it might. In churches such as ours that practice participatory meetings based on I Corinthians 14:26-40, however, it is of great relevance. Although I was intellectually persuaded that my friend’s interpretation was probably right, I had nagging doubts about it.

 

This was because in I Corinthians 11, Paul does not speak disapprovingly of a woman prophesying in what most commentators take to be a church setting, as long as she has a covering on her head. John Calvin offered a possible explanation for this in his Commentary on 1 Corinthians 14:

 

It may be replied, that the Apostle, by here condemning the one, does not commend the other. For when he reproves them for prophesying with their head uncovered, he at the same time does not give them permission to prophesy in some other way, but rather delays his condemnation of that vice to another passage, namely in 1 Corinthians 14.

 

Still, it seemed odd to me that Paul would not express his disapproval of this practice right away, if it was so objectionable to him, but would wait until chapter 14 to express his disapproval of it.  It is possible that the apostle was referring to women prophesying in contexts outside of the church meeting, but, as I already mentioned, most commentators do not see it that way, and because of reasons that I will explain later, this interpretation did not seem as likely to me, either.

 

Secondly, this passage is one of the most controversial in the New Testament, and I had heard arguments against this strict interpretation that, although they were not conclusive, raised further doubts.

Lastly, although my wife and I were intellectually persuaded of this interpretation, I was dismayed as she struggled with deep feelings of low self worth because of it. I would remind her that she is of such worth that God gave His Son for her, and of the close relationship that Jesus had with women such as Mary and Martha. Although this interpretation seemed to be having an oppressive effect on her, the last thing that I or anyone else I knew who held to this position wanted was to be oppressive. They were simply good, loving people who felt duty bound to obey what they thought the Bible commanded, just as we did.

 

 

 

A Command Meant to be Obeyed

 

Our desire to be obedient to this passage was strengthened by the fact that Paul’s words here are quite firm. He gives not one, but five reasons why this command should be obeyed:

 

The first is "for it is not permitted unto them to speak.” The perfect tense of the Greek verb translated "permitted" indicates that Paul was being quite emphatic.

 

The second is "but they are commanded to be under obedience". This verb is also in the perfect tense, again signifying that Paul was being very emphatic.

 

Paul’s third reason reinforces the second, "as also saith the law." This is followed by a reply to a possible objection, "And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home".

 

The fourth is "for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.”

 

And the fifth is because "the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord."

 

And so there is no doubt that Paul wanted this command for women to be silent to be obeyed!

 

But in order to obey it accurately, we must make certain that we understand it correctly! In this case, it is particularly important, especially if we are going to teach others how to obey it. This is because how we interpret it has a very important effect on half of God’s people! In our opening story, when Stan Laurel misunderstood a similar command, it made for comedy. But if God’s people misunderstand Paul’s command, the result is not so funny, when we consider the potentially vast impact of that error. Whatever view we adopt, we must not enter into it carelessly or lightheartedly.

 

Just as Stan mistook Ollie’s words, could my wife and I have misunderstood the Apostle Paul? Was Paul merely forbidding the women from speaking disruptively? As I pondered this question, I knew that determining the answer to it would require time-consuming study, which would involve close examination of the relevant Greek words, the Greek grammar, and the context of the passage. With a struggling new business and seven children to provide for, that was a luxury that was hard to justify, so I put it off for a long time.

 

Recently however, even my fifteen and nine year old daughters began to question this interpretation. That was the final prod which motivated me to take the time to study and meditate on this passage in depth.

 

Surely, when any scripture passage has a great and controversial impact on God’s people, it can be beneficial to study the Greek words, the grammar, and the context carefully, to make certain that we understand it correctly. Otherwise, how can we be certain that we know the “plain meaning” of the passage?

 

What I learned from this study was very edifying to me! I hope that you will find it to be of benefit as well.

 

Various Interpretations of this Passage

 

We must not approach this passage (or any other scripture passage) with the motive of trying to “explain it away.” Instead, we should study this passage, and any difficult passage in scripture, with the honest desire to more fully understand it. If a fuller understanding honestly compels us to adopt an interpretation different from the one that we previously held, then that, on the other hand, is a good thing.

 

Some have claimed that verses 34 and 35, which are generally regarded as canonical, are an interpolation (addition) by a scribe. However, although these two verses are indeed placed at the end of the chapter in some ancient manuscripts, they are present in all of them. In light of such massive manuscript evidence, verses 34 and 35 seem to rightfully belong in the inspired text. Furthermore, in the spring 1999 edition of the Biblical Theology Bulletin, D.W. Odell-Scott pointed out that in manuscripts where these verses are placed at the end of the chapter, there is a resulting textual incoherence, because verse 36 is then left standing alone. Despite the attempts of some to make it disappear, this difficult passage just won’t go away!

 

Others say that Paul’s command only had application to the Corinthian cultural situation. However, could not this claim be made in regard to any scripture that we are uncomfortable with? Furthermore, it is plain contextually, by statements like “as in all of the churches of the saints,” that the instructions Paul is giving have universal application.

 

Still others assert that in verses 34 and 35, Paul is quoting the words of some people in Corinth that he disagrees with. In this scenario, he follows the quote with the words, “What! Did the word of God originate with you?” However, this interpretation is pure conjecture, since the apostle gives us no clear indications that he is quoting someone. Steve Atkerson has pointed out that contrary to the mistaken assertions of some, the Greek letter ayta does not indicate that verses 34 and 35 are quotes [http://www.ntrf.org/silent2.html]. Instead, Paul’s “What!” seems to be directed at those who would disagree with the firm command he has just given.

 

Some have conjectured that the men and women were sitting on opposite sides of the meeting hall, and the women were shouting questions to their husbands. Although Paul may have been forbidding disorderly speech, there is no scriptural, archeological, or ancient literary evidence I am aware of which indicates that the practice of the first century church was to segregate the men and women (if you are aware of such, please let me know). Furthermore, the early church met in homes. It is hard to imagine such a strict segregation in the casual atmosphere of a home meeting! However, many of the women might have voluntarily sat together and apart from their husbands. That would partly explain this passage, but it would not explain all of it, because Paul’s prohibition seems to cover much more than just the asking of questions. Furthermore, Paul wrote, “let them ask their own husbands at home,” indicating that some of the women were asking questions of people besides their own husbands.

 

Lastly, another interpretation is the idea that Paul is merely forbidding the women from openly questioning or judging a prophecy spoken by a man. However, this idea has difficulties, too, not the least of which is the fact that the apostle closes his command with the observation, “For it is a shame for women to be speaking in church,” a statement which seems to be much broader in scope than questioning or judging prophecy.

 

Besides the interpretations listed above, all of which present difficulties, we are left with only two other reasonable explanations I am aware of, which I will discuss after a few brief introductory comments.

 

 

A Limited Silence

 

To begin with, it is obvious Paul meant that when the church comes together, the women should be silent only at certain times. Most church historians agree that in the early church, the Lord’s Supper was celebrated each week in the context of a full meal, and was a time of wonderful fellowship. Surely Paul was not prohibiting the women from speaking to others during that time, except, perhaps, at certain points, such as when it was time for someone to explain the significance of the bread and wine. And so reason dictates that the times when silence is called for are those periods that are devoted to public speaking and reverence before God.

 

 

Nearly all of those who believe that women should not speak publicly in church allow them to sing with the men. Most of them also would allow a woman to call down an unruly child. And so it is obvious that this was a limited silence. The important thing that we need to determine is, what was the scope of it?

 

 

Two Likely Meanings

 

A Greek word can mean different things depending on the context, just as an English word can. Sometimes there are fine shades of meaning in the Greek, just as there are in English. This, of course, is why we have multiple definitions for many words in Greek lexicons. To argue that laleo, the Greek word meaning “to speak,” means all speech of any form, or that sigao just means “be mute” is to over-simplify things and to gloss over this fact.


For reasons which I will further explain, it has seemed to me for some time now that the apostle Paul must have had one of two different shades of meaning in mind when he wrote 1 Corinthians 14:34-37:

 

1)     Silence in regard to public speech:  A woman should not publicly address the church at all during the meeting time. Although nearly all English translations can be understood in the sense of #2 below, this is what many think the “plain meaning” of this passage seems to be, as it is usually translated into English.

But that, of course, should not be the ultimate determining factor for us. The most important question is, what was the “plain meaning” of this passage in the Greek language in which it was written? That is what I set out to learn when I began to study this passage, and I will try to explain the conclusion I came to in a way that the average Christian with no knowledge of Greek can understand and evaluate.

 

2)     The other meaning that Paul may have had in mind is silence in regard to disruptive speech: Women should not talk in a disruptive way during the meeting. For instance, suppose that a missionary revisited a church that he had planted. When the meeting began, he noticed that some of the ladies, not wanting to stop their enjoyable conversations, were continuing to talk, ignoring the speakers and church leaders. I can testify first hand that I have seen this happen in church, and it really is quite shameful. It reflects a disdain for the important spiritual matters at hand, a rebellious nature, and a lack of reverence, for the Lord is present when His people meet. In a follow-up letter to the church, we would not be surprised for that missionary to get very firm and say something like, “Just as in all other churches, your women should be quiet during the meetings! They are not permitted to be talking. Instead, they should be submissive, as the Bible also says. If they have any questions, they should ask their own husbands at home. For it is shameful for women to be talking in church!”

If this interpretation is correct, then the Greek word sigao should be understood in the sense of “keep quiet” rather than “keep silence.” The Greek word lalein should be understood in the sense of “to be talking” rather than “to speak.”

 

But which interpretation is the right one?

 

I don’t think that in the matter of practical instructions for church meetings, our Lord would leave us with no way of determining the meaning of an inspired writer of scripture. If we are responsive to the guidance of the Holy Spirit, and carefully study the grammar, the context, and the NT usage of the Greek words in a passage, we should be able to find indicators of the intent of a writer.

 

To begin with, the Greek word translated “keep silence” in verse 34 is sigatosan, which is the present active imperative form of the Greek word sigao. A present active imperative is a command to continue an action, such as “keep sweeping!” Because the command for the women to be silent is in the present active imperative, it carries with it the idea of "keep quiet."

 

This continuous sense could be understood in three different ways:

 

1)     Continue being silent during the meeting.

2)     Continue the church custom of being silent.

3)     Get quiet and keep quiet.

 

Note that all three of the above could refer to silence in regard to public speaking, or silence in regard to disruptive speech. Paul also used the present active imperative form of sigao twice in the nearby verses:

 

28  But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

29  Let the prophets speak two or three, and let the other judge.

30  If any thing be revealed to another that sitteth by, let the first hold his peace.

 

 

Where Paul commands the tongue speakers to be silent, his meaning is (1): continue being silent during the meeting.

 

Where Paul commands the first prophet to be silent, his meaning is (3): Get quiet and keep quiet.

 

The first thing that we notice in regard to Paul’s usage of sigao in these two verses was that he is not prohibiting all forms of speech. For that matter, he was not even prohibiting all forms of public speech, for he did not forbid the tongue speakers and prophets from speaking publicly in other ways. It was OK for them to speak publicly again, provided they did not give a message in tongues or another prophecy while a second prophet was speaking. Therefore, sigao meant silence in regard to tongue speaking and in regard to prophecy. This confirms our earlier observation that sigao is a limited silence, and it leads us to ask the crucial question, what is Paul commanding the women to be silent in regard to?

 

Examining how sigao is used in the rest of the New Testament can help us to determine this.

 

 

The New Testament Usage of Sigao

 

The Greek lexicon of Bauer, Arndt, and Gingrich (BAG) is widely recognized as one of the most authoritative works of it’s kind. According to BAG, sigao can have the various meanings of:

 

1)     Be silent, keep still

a.      Say nothing, keep silent

b.      stop speaking, become silent

2)  Keep secret, conceal

 

 

Sigao only occurs eight other times in the NT. Aside from Paul, Luke is the only other New Testament writer who uses this word.  Luke and Paul were contemporaries who spent a great deal of time in each other’s company, so it is likely that they both used the word in the same way. This means that Luke’s usage of the word can help us understand Paul’s usage of it as well. With that said, let’s look at each occurrence of this word in the NT.

 

In two verses in the NT, sigao has the meaning of, "kept secret":

 

Luke 9:36 And when the voice was past, Jesus was found alone. And they kept it close and told no man in those days any of those things which they had seen.

 

Romans 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,

 

In these two verses, we again see that sigao is a limited silence. It does not convey the idea of silence concerning all things; just silence in regard to not divulging a particular secret.

 

All of the other occurrences of sigao concern public assemblies, so they have great relevance to understanding the meaning of this word as it used in 1 Cor. 14:34.

Luke 20:26 And they could not take hold of his words before the people: and they marvelled at his answer, and held their peace.

Acts 12:17 But he, beckoning unto them with the hand to hold their peace, declared unto them how the Lord had brought him out of the prison. And he said, Go shew these things unto James, and to the brethren. And he departed, and went into another place.

Acts 15:12 Then all the multitude kept silence and gave audience to Barnabas and Paul, declaring what miracles and wonders God had wrought among the Gentiles by them.

Acts 15:13 And after they had held their peace, James answered, saying, Men and brethren, hearken unto me:

The last two occurrences of sigao in the NT (other than 1 Corinthians 14:34), are of particular importance to this subject, because they are in the immediate context of the verses that we are considering:

1 Corinthians 14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

1 Corinthians 14:30 If any thing be revealed to another that sitteth by, let  the first hold his peace.

From this complete list of all of the NT verses containing the word sigao (outside of the disputed verse), we can make several observations:

 

  1. As we have already noted, in the last two verses listed above, Paul does not mean that a speaker in tongues or a prophet cannot address the congregation again later in the meeting. He only means that they should stop talking in a particular way. In fact there is nothing to indicate that that the first prophet who speaks may not give another prophecy later in the meeting. He is only instructed to be silent so that a different prophet who also receives a revelation will have the opportunity to speak.

 

 

  1. Outside of the disputed verse, wherever sigao is used in the New Testament concerning a public meeting, it refers to the respectful silence required for unhindered public speaking. In this regard it is very similar to the English word “quiet.” When we use this word in a phrase such as “be quiet,” we usually do not mean that none of those in the audience are permitted to speak publicly. Instead, we use the word to bring order to a noisy crowd, and to request that disruptive speech and chattering stop. Outside of 1 Corinthians 14:34, that is exactly the way that sigao is used in all of the other NT passages that refer to public speech.

 

3.      If, in verse 34, sigao does not only refer to being respectfully silent while someone is speaking publicly, but also to a complete ban on public speaking, then this is the only place that the word is used in such a comprehensive sense in the entire New Testament.

 

If Paul had wanted the women to be completely silent, there is another Greek word, siopao, that he could have used. It also means “to be silent,” but it seems to be the New Testament word of choice to indicate complete absence of speech, including public speech. Here are some instances where siopao is used in exactly that way:

 

Luke 1:20  And, behold, thou shalt be dumb, and not able to speak, until the day that these things shall be performed, because thou believest not my words, which shall be fulfilled in their season.

 

Luke 19:40 And he answered and said unto them, I tell you that, if these should hold their peace, the stones would immediately cry out.

 

Matthew 26:63 But Jesus held his peace. And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God.

 

Mark 3:4  And he saith unto them, Is it lawful to do good on the sabbath days, or to do evil? to save life, or to kill? But they held their peace.

 

Acts 18:9  Then spake the Lord to Paul in the night by a vision, Be not afraid, but speak, and hold not thy peace:

 

 

And so we conclude that the Greek word sigao indicates a limited, not a complete silence, and that outside of the disputed verse, it always refers to the respectful silence required for unhindered public speaking when it concerns public meetings.

 

 

 

The New Testament Usage of Laleo

 

Next, let's look at laleo, the word translated "to speak" in "they are not permitted to speak."

 

Thayer writes that laleo has the following range of meanings:

 

1) to utter a voice or emit a sound
2) to speak
2a) to use the tongue or the faculty of speech
2b) to utter articulate sounds
3) to talk
4) to utter, tell
5) to use words in order to declare one's mind and disclose one's thoughts
5a) to speak

 

BAG lists a similar range of possible meanings.

 

A quick computer survey of all of the 271 instances of this word in the New Testament also confirms that laleo has a very broad range of possible meanings, just as the English word talk does. Just like the English word talk, wherever laleo is used, we must determine it’s precise meaning by the immediate context.

Another word that is commonly used to refer to speech in the NT is the word lego. Why did Paul not use it instead? 

W.E. Vine points out the primary difference between laleo and lego:

 

In comparison with laleo, lego refers especially to the substance of what is said, laleo, to the words conveying the utterance.

Regarding this, Dr. Spiros Zodhiates writes, 

The reason he [Paul] used laleo and not lego [when discussing tongues] is because laleo refers to the mere utterance of sounds without the speaker necessarily knowing what he is saying or others understanding. Lego on the other hand is saying something which is the product of one’s thought.

Although Dr. Zodhiates was discussing why Paul chose laleo to refer to speaking in tongues, it is easy to see how the word would also be appropriate for referring to speaking in a disruptive and noisy fashion. The translators of the World English Bible, in fact, translate laleo as “to chatter” in verse 35:

If they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home, for it is shameful for a woman to chatter in the assembly.

The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament also confirms the above observations regarding  laleo :

 

This word, like “lull,” imitates childish babbling, and thus means ‘to prattle,’ to ‘babble.’ It is also used for the sounds of animals and musical instruments. As regards speech, it may denote sound rather than meaning, but also the ability to speak. In compounds the meaning is always ‘to prattle.’ [Little Kittel, p 506].

Along similar lines, the translators of the Bible in Basic English render laleo as “talking”:

14:35 And if they have a desire for knowledge about anything, let them put questions to their husbands privately: for talking in the church puts shame on a woman.

 

Laleo is used to refer many times in the New Testament to the speaking that occurs during conversation, rather than to public speech.

 

If laleo only referred to public speech, then the following verse regarding the prophetess Anna would cause problems for those who believe that a woman should not publicly address men, since scripture seems to speak approvingly of her actions:

 

Luke 2:38  And she coming in that instant gave thanks likewise unto the Lord, and spake (laleo) of him to all them that looked for redemption in Jerusalem.

 

To be sure, laleo is often used to refer to public speech in the NT, so New Testament usage of this word does not at all preclude the possibility of this. However, although laleo is less often used to refer to conversational talk, it is still used that way many times in the NT, so this may have been what the apostle Paul had in mind. Here are most of the examples in the NT in which laleo refers to conversational speech:

 

Luke 24:32  And they said one to another, Did not our heart burn within us, while He talked with us by the way, and while He opened to us the scriptures?

Matthew 12:36  But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment.

Matthew 12:47  Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee.

Mark 5:36  As soon as Jesus heard the word that was spoken, he saith unto the ruler of the synagogue, Be not afraid, only believe.

Mark 9:6  For he wist not what to say; for they were sore afraid.

Luke 7:15  And he that was dead sat up, and began to speak. And he delivered him to his mother.

Luke 11:14  And he was casting out a devil, and it was dumb. And it came to pass, when the devil was gone out, the dumb spake; and the people wondered.

Luke 12:3  Therefore whatsoever ye have spoken in darkness shall be heard in the light; and that which ye have spoken in the ear in closets shall be proclaimed upon the housetops.

Luke 22:60  And Peter said, Man, I know not what thou sayest. And immediately, while he yet spake, the cock crew.

John 4:26  Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am [he].

John 4:27  And upon this came his disciples, and marvelled that he talked with the woman: yet no man said, What seekest thou? or, Why talkest thou with her?

John 9:37  And Jesus said unto him, Thou hast both seen him, and it is he that talketh (laleo) with thee.

Acts 22:10  And I said, What shall I do, Lord? And the Lord said unto me, Arise, and go into Damascus; and there it shall be told (laleo) thee of all things which are appointed for thee to do.

Acts 23:18  So he took him, and brought [him] to the chief captain, and said, Paul the prisoner called me unto [him], and prayed me to bring this young man unto thee, who hath something to say (laleo) unto thee.

1 Timothy 5:13  And withal they learn [to be] idle, wandering about from house to house; and not only idle, but tattlers also and busybodies, speaking (laleo) things which they ought not. [Here I think the word definitely refers to chatter, and godless chatter at that.]

James 1:19  Wherefore, my beloved brethren, let every man be swift to hear, slow to speak, slow to wrath:

1 Peter 3:10  For he that will love life, and see good days, let him refrain his tongue from evil, and his lips that they speak (laleo) no guile:

Revelation 17:1  And there came one of the seven angels which had the seven vials, and talked (laleo) with me, saying unto me, Come hither; I will shew unto thee the judgment of the great whore that sitteth upon many waters:

Revelation 21:15  And he that talked (laleo) with me had a golden reed to measure the city, and the gates thereof, and the wall thereof.

And so disorderly conversation is certainly one of the meanings that the apostle Paul could have had in mind when he used the word laleo. As we will see later, the tense of laleo as it is used in I Corinthians 14:34 gives us good reason to believe that this is exactly the case.

 

Paul’s Usage of Adelphoi in 1 Corinthians

Now let’s examine Paul’s usage of another important Greek word in I Corinthians, the word adelphoi, translated “brethren”. This word is important, because if the argument that women should be silent in regard to public speech is going to hold water, adelphoi has to refer to men only in 1 Corinthians 14:26. This is because in 14:31 Paul says, “For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.” The context here undoubtedly indicates that Paul is referring to public prophesying.

 

Unfortunately for the silence-in-regard-to-public-speech argument, in every other place in 1 Corinthians in which the church is being addressed, the apostle Paul is including the women when he uses this word. There are only 28 occurrences of this word in 1 Corinthians, so it will not be difficult for us to examine all of them. To begin with, let’s look at every verse outside of chapter 14 where Paul uses this word to address the church. In a few of these verses, men are mentioned as a subgroup of the brethren, but it is still clear that Paul is addressing the entire church.

 

1 Corinthians 1:10  Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and [that] there be no divisions among you; but [that] ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.

 

1 Corinthians 1:11  For it hath been declared unto me of you, my brethren, by them [which are of the house] of Chloe, that there are contentions among you.

 

1 Corinthians 1:26  For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:

 

Here "wise men" are mentioned as a small subgroup of the brethren.  But Paul is sharing something that he desires all of those in the church to be aware of, so there is no reason to think that by "brethren," Paul does not have the entire church in mind.

 

1 Corinthians 2:1  And I, brethren, when I came to you, came not with excellency of speech or of wisdom, declaring unto you the testimony of God.

 

1 Corinthians 3:1  And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, [even] as unto babes in Christ.

 

1 Corinthians 4:6  And these things, brethren, I have in a figure transferred to myself and [to] Apollos for your sakes; that ye might learn in us not to think [of men] above that which is written, that no one of you be puffed up for one against another.

1 Corinthians 7:24  Brethren, let every man, wherein he is called, therein abide with God.

1 Corinthians 7:29  But this I say, brethren, the time is short: it remaineth, that both they that have wives be as though they had none;

 

Read in isolation from the context, verses 7:24 and 7:29 might seem to be exceptions. But both verses are in the context of instructions given to both men and women, including virgins and widows, so there is no compelling reason to think that Paul is not addressing both men and women with his use of the word "brethren."

 

1 Corinthians 8:12  But when ye sin so against the brethren, and wound their weak conscience, ye sin against Christ.

 

1 Corinthians 10:1  Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea;

 

1 Corinthians 11:2  Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered [them] to you.

 

1 Corinthians 11:33  Wherefore, my brethren, when ye come together to eat, tarry one for another.

 

1 Corinthians 12:1  Now concerning spiritual [gifts], brethren, I would not have you ignorant.

 

1 Corinthians 15:1  Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;

 

1 Corinthians 15:50  Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

 

1 Corinthians 15:58  Therefore, my beloved brethren, be ye stedfast, unmoveable, always abounding in the work of the Lord, forasmuch as ye know that your labour is not in vain in the Lord.

 

1 Corinthians 16:15  I beseech you, brethren, (ye know the house of Stephanas, that it is the firstfruits of Achaia, and [that] they have addicted themselves to the ministry of the saints,)

 

 

And so we see that outside of 1 Corinthians 14, in every place where the church is addressed by the word adlephoi, the women are included. Now let’s look at each occurrence of the word adelphoi in chapter 14. In all of these, the church is being addressed.

 

1 Corinthians 14:6  Now, brethren, if I come unto you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you, except I shall speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine?

The ASV translation of 1 Corinthians 14:20 might lead some to believe that this is one instance where adelphoi refers only to the men:

1 Corinthians 14:20  Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.

However, the Greek word translated “men” here is the word teleioi, which means “full grown” or “mature.” It is translated “men” here in the AV because it has a masculine gender, but this is probably not because Paul was excluding the women. It was probably for reasons of grammatical correctness only; the word needed to be in agreement with the masculine gender of adelphoi. Besides that, just as we often mean a group consisting of men and women when we use the words “man” and “mankind” in English, it was also common in Greek to use the masculine form of a word when referring to a group consisting of men and women. That is why most modern translators do not translate teleioi “men” in this verse. Green’s Literal Version translates it “mature,” as does the Modern King James, the New King James, the NASB, and  the RSV. Young’s Literal Version translates it “perfect,” and the NIV “adults.” Certainly, no convincing argument can be made on the basis of the gender of teleioi alone.

1 Corinthians 14:26  How is it then, brethren? when ye come together, every one of you hath a psalm, hath a doctrine, hath a tongue, hath a revelation, hath an interpretation. Let all things be done unto edifying.

1 Corinthians 14:39  Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.

 

 

Nowhere in 1 Corinthians 14 does the apostle inform us that he is switching gears and addressing only the men with the word adelphoi. Although this conjecture seems very unlikely, it must be affirmed if one is to maintain the silence-in-regard-to-public-speaking position.

 

Now lets look at the all of the places in 1 Corinthians 14 where Paul uses the word adelphoi, but not to address the church. Even in most of these, women are not excluded.

 

 1 Corinthians 6:5  I speak to your shame. Is it so, that there is not a wise man among you? no, not one that shall be able to judge between his brethren?

 

1 Corinthians 6:8  Nay, ye do wrong, and defraud, and that your brethren.

 

1 Corinthians 15:6  After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.

 

1 Corinthians 16:20  All the brethren greet you. Greet ye one another with an holy kiss.

 

 

That covers 25 of the 28 occurrences of the word adlephoi in 1 Corinthians. The remaining three verses are the only ones in I Corinthians where it may be argued that the word adelphoi definitely excludes women:

 

 

1 Corinthians 9:5  Have we not power to lead about a sister, a wife, as do other apostles and as the brethren of the Lord, and Cephas?

 

1 Corinthians 16:11  Let no man therefore despise him, but conduct him forth in peace, that he may come unto me; for I look for him with the brethren.

 

1 Corinthians 16:12  Now concerning our brother Apollos: I greatly desired that he should come unto you with the brethren, but it was not at all his will to come at this time; but he will come when it shall be convenient.

 

Note that in none of these last three occurrences of the word “brethren” is the church being referred to.

 

And so there is overwhelming evidence that when the word  “brethren” is used to address the church in 1 Corinthians, it includes the women.

 

In response to this, it has been argued that Paul is addressing the women under the headship of the men by using the word “brethren.” The problem with this is that Paul does not exclude the women in his opening address to the church:

 

1 Corinthians 1:1  Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, and Sosthenes our brother,

2        Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:

 

This certainly includes the women. Since the letter is written to both men and women, the word “brethren,” which Paul uses quite frequently to refer to those he is writing to, obviously must include the women.

 

Secondly, Paul seems to have no hesitation about addressing women directly, even by name, in his epistles. In Philippians 4:1-3 he uses the term "my beloved brethren," and then addresses two women by name in the very next verse:

 

I beseech Euodias, and beseech Syntyche, that they be of the same mind in the Lord.

 

If, for purposes of headship, Paul preferred to address the women through the men, this would be an exception to that rule. He could have written, “Please beseech Euodias and Syntyche,” but instead he wrote, “I beseech Euodias, and beseech Syntyche.”

Thirdly, in addition to the New Testament usage, there is solid extra-biblical evidence that adelphoi can refer to females as well as men. There is an excellent article by George Davis and Michael Clark entitled, Brotherhood: Male and Female Created He Them, at http://www.awildernessvoice.com/brotherhood.html, which further discusses the meaning of adelphoi. In it, the authors quote Michael Perkins, who wrote,

"It (adelphos) can literally be translated 'from the same womb' and was often used of twins, INCLUDING brother/sister pairs. That's why I abandoned the use of 'brothers/ brethren' a few years ago and began to use 'siblings'... adelphos (comes from delphos: 'womb') literally means 'from womb', but is normally considered to be, 'son of the same mother'.

HOWEVER...

Euripides uses adelphoin (masculine genitive/dative dual) in Electra 420-410 BC (line 536), 'the foot of brother and sister would not be the same in size, for the male conquers.'

Here, Euripides uses a masculine plural word that has for centuries been considered to ONLY refer to males. The only significance to his using the DUAL is that it's clear he is referring to two siblings. However, the other contextual information, 'the male conquers' makes it absolutely evident that one of these siblings is female. This provides incontrovertible extra-biblical evidence that completely dispels the myth that because adelphoi(n) is masculine, it can only refer to males."

But there is more extra-biblical evidence than that. Acknowledging that adelphoi can refer to both men and women, Wayne Grudem writes in What's Wrong with Gender-Neutral Bible Translations? :

Up to this point I have listed numerous examples of inaccurate translations in the NRSV and other gender-neutral versions. A different matter arises, however, with the plural form of the Greek word adelphos, "brother." Although in many cases the plural word adelphoi means "brothers," and refers only to males, there are other cases where adelphoi is used to mean "brother and sister" or "brothers and sisters."  Consider the following quotations from Greek literature outside the New Testament:

1. That man is a cousin of mine: his mother and my father were adelphoi (Andocides, On the Mysteries 47 [approx. 400 B.C.]).

2. My father died leaving me and my adelphoi Diodorus and Theis as his heirs, and his property devolved upon us (Oxyrhynchus Papyri 713, 20-23 [97 A.D.; Diodorus is a man's name and Theis is a woman's name]).

3. The footprints of adelphoi should never match (of a man and of a woman): the man's is greater (Euripides, Electra 536 [5th cent. B.C.]).

4. An impatient and critical man finds fault even with his own parents and children and adelphoi and neighbors (Epictetus, Discourses 1.12.20-21 [approx 130 A.D.]).

In standard English, we just don't say, "My brothers Dave and Jenny."  So the Greek plural adelphoi sometimes has a different sense from English "brothers." In fact, the major Greek lexicons for over 100 years have said that adelphoi, which is the plural of the word adelphos, "brother," sometimes means "brothers and sisters." (so Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker, 1957 and 1979; Liddell-Scott-Jones, 1940 and as early as 1869).

One other important factor is that the masculine adelphos and the feminine adelph_ are just different forms (masculine and feminine) of the same word adelph-. But the plural form of this word would be adelphoi when talking about a group of all men, and it would also be adelphoi when talking about a group of both men and women. Only the context could tell us whether it meant "brothers" or "brothers and sisters." This makes Greek different from English, where bro- and sis- are completely different roots, and we wouldn't call a mixed group of men and women "brothers." (The root adelph- is from a-, which means "from," and delphus, "womb" (Liddell-Scott-Jones, p. 20)  and probably had an early sense of "from the same womb.") [http://www.cbmw.org/resources/articles/genderneutral.html]

 

Confirming these observations, Thayer writes that adelphoi may refer to “a fellow believer, united to another by the bond of affection.”

Likewise, W.E. Vine writes that the word can mean “believers, apart from sex” [p147].

And so we conclude that outside of the disputed verse, when the word  “brethren” is used to address the church in 1 Corinthians, it always includes the women. In my opinion, this deals a crushing blow to the silence-in-regard-to-public-speech position, because while directly addressing the “brethren” in this passage, Paul writes, “For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.”

What do the Context and Grammar of I Corinthians 14:26-40 indicate regarding this silence?

 

There is more than the New Testament usage of these three important Greek words to lead us to believe that Paul was not prohibiting the women from praying or prophesying publicly in church. The grammar and the context all point to that conclusion, too:

 

1.      Laleo is in the present active infinitive form lalein, which indicates action that is in progress or is prolonged (Huber DrumWright, An Introduction To New Testament Greek, p. 75). Although it is translated “to speak,” which sounds more natural in English, more accurate translations are “they are not permitted to be talking,” and “for it is a shame for women to be talking in the church.” If Paul had wanted to forbid individual acts of public speaking, as opposed to conversational talk or frequent public speaking, he could have used the much more commonly used aorist active infinitive.

 

 

Admittedly, the tense could indicate that Paul was prohibiting women from engaging in public speech on a regular basis in church. Even this would make allowance for occasional acts of public speech. But it is not likely that Paul was doing this, for two reasons:

a.      Paul uses lalesai, the aorist active infinitive form of laleo, in 1 Corinthians 14:19 to refer to public speaking in the church: “Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue.” If Paul wanted to forbid women from engaging in individual acts of public speech such as this in church, why did he not use lalesai again?

b.      Paul also used the present active infinitive in 1 Timothy 2:12, where he wrote that he did not permit a woman “to be teaching” a man.  But there the word “woman” is singular. In 1 Corinthians 14:34, however, it is plural, indicating that Paul did not want multiple women to be talking at once. We will discuss this in more detail shortly.

 

Laleo is used two other times in the present active infinitive form in 1 Corinthians 14, where it literally means,

 

“and I wish you all to be speaking with tongues” (verse 5)

 

“and to be speaking with tongues do not forbid.” (verse 39)

 

In each of these instances, lalein denotes the prolonged ability to speak with tongues, but does not necessarily refer only to speaking in tongues publicly. Paul wanted them all to have the ability to speak with tongues. But if there was no interpreter, they were not to speak publicly, but to themselves and to God. Therefore, it cannot be argued on the basis of these two instances that lalein must refer to public speech.

The present active infinitive is not used with the other instances of laleo in chapter 14, all of which involve public speech.

 

2.      Likewise, as we mentioned above, in the Greek "women" is plural in verse 34. It is also plural in verse 35 in the Textus Receptus and Byzantine majority texts. This is reflected in the AV (King James Version) translation: "for it is a shame for women to speak in the church." This is exactly what we would expect Paul to say if he were prohibiting the women from conversing with each other in a disruptive way when someone else is speaking publicly.

Of course, this begs the question: Men should not engage in disruptive speech either during the meeting. So why did Paul single out the women?

The likely answer is quite simple. Paul was having a problem with the women talking in church at Corinth, but not the men!

Obviously, he would not have approved of the women conversing out loud when someone was speaking. But he also would not have approved of a woman competing with a male teacher during the meeting:


1 Timothy 2:12  But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.

Each of these things seems to have been a problem in some of the churches. Evidently, some of the women, enjoying for the first time in their lives the liberty of NT priesthood, were going to extremes and abusing their new-found freedom by trying to "take over" teachings, by usurping pastor-teachers, disregarding head coverings, and conversing during the meetings. It is less likely that this would have become a problem if the women were not allowed to contribute revelatory insights, such as tongues, a word of knowledge, or prophesy, during the church meetings.  Instead, it seems more likely that some of these women took their liberty and ran as far as they could with it!   Paul got very firm with them, as we have already stressed. He commanded them to act in cognizance of, and to be in subjection to, the principles of creation and of order.

 

3.   In I Corinthians 11, Paul teaches that a woman’s head should be covered, and a man’s head uncovered, when praying or prophesying.  There is little doubt that the women in some of the early Christian communities covered their heads with garments. Vincent writes: "In the sculptures of the catacombs the women have a close-fitting head-dress, while the men have the hair short."

In On The Veiling of Virgins, Tertullian, arguing that both married women and virgins should cover their heads in church, wrote,